According to Aristotle, for an argument to be valid, does it have to adhere to all the laws?

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The laws of syllogisms were systematically elaborated by Aristotle, and for an argument to be valid, it must adhere to all the laws; to be fallacious, it need only break one (see syllogism ).

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Get more facts and information about fallacy . Or, view the full encyclopedia entry from The Columbia Encyclopedia, Sixth Edition.

Similar questions: If an argument becomes fallacious does that mean that at least one of the laws presented has been broken? How many laws need to be broken to make an argument fallacious? [ Hide these questions ]

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